He (he is a Peruvian native by the way, and not a resident of the US) married his second wife (she is also peruvian) in Peru two months before the judge finalized our (I'm American) divorce here in the U.S.
He is now seeking a divorce from her, however, and is curious if he can invalidate the marriage by stating he wasn't divorced before he married her. If he does this, will he be charged with Bigamy?
Would it be better just do go through the divorce procedure in Peru and not say anything about the other divorce not being final (he's the only one that knows, she doesn't)?
2006-11-30 10:49:30 · 6 answers · asked by MeMyselfandI 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
He 's technically a bigamist so when he declares that to invalidate the marriage, he is essentially admitting to the crime .
Whether they jail him or not, is up to the Peruvian authorities.
2006-11-30 10:54:50 · answer #1 · answered by bobus1964 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He should get a divorce in Peru and not open up the bigamy cans of worms from the USA, for which he could go to jail
2016-05-23 06:10:42 · answer #2 · answered by Deborah 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no it is not . yes most likely the peruvian government will charge him withbigamy and he will spend some time in a peruvian jail . too bad I would cry big tears NOT!!! good luck and god bless and happy holidays.
2006-11-30 11:44:47 · answer #3 · answered by Kate T. 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He can be charged with bigamy. I mean if the 2nd wife gets mad at him and decides to suit him. I would process each one in separate in order to be in the safe side, if I were him.
2006-11-30 10:56:05 · answer #4 · answered by Graça 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You hold all the cards now . Bigomy is a crime. Pull out the cash register and get all you can!!!
2006-11-30 11:02:23 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
NO
2006-11-30 10:57:37 · answer #6 · answered by Yana 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋