He married his second wife in Peru two months before the judge finalized our divorce here in the U.S. He is now seeking a divorce from her, however, I am curious if he can invalidate the marriage by stating he wasn't divorced before he married her. If he does this, will he be charged with Bigamy? Would it be better just do go through the divorce procedure in Peru and not say anything about the other divorce not being final (he's the only one that knows, she doesn't)?
2006-11-30 09:09:12 · 5 answers · asked by AnswerWhore 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Other - Society & Culture
I think it's not legal....if you're married in one state or country you're married all over the world.....CHARGE HIM!!!!!
2006-11-30 09:11:40 · answer #1 · answered by graciegirl 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If it is my understanding a marriage that is done overseas is not viewed as those two people being married in the United States only in the country that the marriage transpired.
2006-11-30 17:12:03 · answer #2 · answered by Rodney Williams 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I can't answer this question as I'm only qualified in England and Wales. However, you should say which state you were married and if it's different, which one you're divorcing in. Hopefully then you'll be able to get an answer from a US lawyer :)
2006-11-30 17:12:30 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Charge HIM. Sue HIM. He scewed up your life - and now he is married another women in another country....CHARGE HIM TWICE!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
2006-11-30 17:15:40 · answer #4 · answered by Tina 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it is ilegal everywhere
2006-11-30 17:16:34 · answer #5 · answered by Patt 1 · 0⤊ 5⤋