If the owner of the mineral rights is not the owner of the surface rights, in the case of an oil lease, who get's the lease, the owner of the mineral rights or the owner of the land? RE: North Dakota
2006-11-30 08:35:12 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Business & Finance ➔ Renting & Real Estate
I think the rules vary from state to state. You will need to check the specific rules for ND.
Where I live the mineral rights owner can access the property to exploit the minerals but must pay the surface owner damages.
2006-11-30 08:46:54 · answer #1 · answered by oil field trash 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The mineral rights owner would have to pay the surface rights owner for damages incurred to extract the mineral. If the mineral rights is oil, the cost is minimal, if the mineral rights is for coal to be strip mined, this becomes a big issue.
2006-12-01 00:21:44 · answer #2 · answered by Paul K 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
firstly there are two different types of intrest in this. anyone who owns land is believed to own every thing above below and on the land (freehold interest) he although should know the all mineral resource belongs to the gov. to then have a lease to extract the minerals he got to get a licence from the appropraite authority and also checkfor any restrictive conveant that might affect his right to an extraction lease.
2006-11-30 11:28:12 · answer #3 · answered by Deji O 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋