2006-11-30 02:03:15 · 6 answers · asked by jcjen2 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
1 m = 10-3 mm / ^2
1^2 m^2 = 10-6 mm^2
1 m^2 = 10-6 mm^2 /*3x10-4
3x10-4 m^2 = 3x10-10 mm^2
2006-11-30 02:10:48 · answer #1 · answered by mashkas 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Of course not,
Is simple you have an m^2 in one side and m^3 in the other.
The only two ways of being the same is if m = 0 or m= 1*10^3 = 1000
2006-11-30 02:15:13 · answer #2 · answered by NES 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
To calculate use BODMAS - Brackets, Order, Division, Multiplication, Addition and Subtraction.
Answer: No
2006-11-30 02:08:45 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No
I agree with NES
You have a - 4m² on the left side and -7m³ on the right side.
- - - - - - - s-
2006-11-30 04:20:56 · answer #4 · answered by SAMUEL D 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No
2006-11-30 02:44:39 · answer #5 · answered by j1891naismith 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no,it is not
2006-11-30 02:09:32 · answer #6 · answered by raj 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋