2006-11-29 22:28:49 · 10 answers · asked by bobsizzlack 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
crash!!
2006-11-29 22:30:35 · answer #1 · answered by Ruthie Baby 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Impossible question. Basic laws of motion. An object at rest tends to remain at rest unless acted on by a force. An object in motion tends to remain in motion unless acted on by a force. The force required to completely end the motion of an object is equal to the amount of force required to initiate the motion of an object (or otherwise propel the object, as when forces increase velocity). Therefore, if an object or force is in motion, then some force was required to put the object in motion, and therefore, there must exist (since energy is neither created nor destroyed) a force somewhere that is capable of ending the motion of the target object or force. Thus no object or force can be 'unstoppable'.
All objects in the known universe are, in some degree or another, in motion, and or capable of motion since the universe is unanchored. For an object to be relatively immovable (according to scale) it must be attached in some way to objects or forces that contain it and place it in mobility stasis. As the universe, from a larger perspective, cannot have any such object or force to anchor the universe (the universe being the sum totality of physical existence as we perceive it), there can be no force or object holding the universe, and therefore objects and forces within the universe in mobility stasis, thus all objects are capable of movement on some scale or another. Thus no object can be truly immovable. For example, perhaps a particular object can be fixed in such a way that its location on Earth cannot be changed, however, the earth itself can still move, and thus the object can be moved with it (or without it, if we just destroy the Earth and leave the object).
Therefore, there being no such thing as an unstoppable force, nor any such things as an immovable object, the question is unanswerable because it represents a physical impossiblity.
2006-11-30 06:46:48 · answer #2 · answered by crispy 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Nothing, because there is no such thing as an unstoppable force nor an immovable object. This is a case in which the language used is not describing a real world phenomenon.
2006-11-30 06:37:32 · answer #3 · answered by langdonrjones 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the immovable object breaks or the agent of the force rebounds
2006-11-30 06:32:25 · answer #4 · answered by raj 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well, F=ma, and you are saying that the force F is infinite (unstoppable) and the acceleration, a is zero (the mass doesn't move), so the mass, m must be infinite, is the only solution.
2006-11-30 06:55:27 · answer #5 · answered by Mez 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think the unstoppable force will break in pieces.
2006-11-30 06:31:25 · answer #6 · answered by once_a_nerd 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You need to ask Fred Astair, but first you need to move heaven and hell.
2006-11-30 06:41:18 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
the universe is created. big bang hey
2006-11-30 06:31:16 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
an explosion
picture two planets colliding
2006-11-30 06:31:13 · answer #9 · answered by enigma 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
uuuummmmm, deflection?
2006-11-30 06:31:36 · answer #10 · answered by roman_ninja 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋