I have seen the error of my ways!
2006-11-29 22:21:25 · 14 answers · asked by Tipsy Dipsy 2 in Entertainment & Music ➔ Movies
Because chocolate bunny rabbits saved him.
Tolkien kind of left that part out.
2006-11-30 03:05:05 · answer #1 · answered by DegenerationX 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Smeagol Turning Into Gollum
2016-11-04 12:24:16 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The black riders were humans and had rings subject to the One Ring. Smeagol had the One Ring. Smeagol was from a race closely related to Hobbits who, it seems, were more resistant to the power of the rings than humans. The One Ring was made to subject the other rings. Its effect on its owner was distinctly different than the other rings.
2006-11-29 22:28:25 · answer #3 · answered by Cribbage 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The nine kings of Men who eventually became the Black Riders never possessed the Ring of Power. All they possessed were the nine rings given to them by Sauron, through which he enslaved them and turned them into the nazgul. Smeagol, however, had the One Ring, and that's what turned him into Gollum. It almost happened to Bilbo and would also have eventually happened to Frodo if he hadn't destroyed it.
2006-11-29 22:25:47 · answer #4 · answered by yanbarumuku 3 · 4⤊ 0⤋
Smeagol is a hobbit
Black rider is a human king, so if smeagol wants to become a black rider he has to be a human king instead of a hobbit.
2006-11-29 22:37:28 · answer #5 · answered by MissFretNot 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Smeagol did not wear the ring constantly and his ring was the one ring.
The black riders were the 9 human kings and they wore their rings constanly. The one ring ruled them all and in the darkenss they were binded. And they were blinded by the power of the lesser rings.
there was at least a 2500 year or more gap between the battle and the one ring going to isildur and then another gap untill Deagol found the ring and Smeagol killed him. Smeagol then hide in the mountains where the ring corrupted him.
2006-11-29 22:24:01 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 6⤊ 0⤋
Three Rings for the Elven-kings under the sky,
Seven for the Dwarf-Lords in their halls of stone,
Nine for Mortal Men doomed to die,
One for the Dark Lord on his dark throne,
The One Ring is different from the nine given to mortal men. It's purpose was not to directly corrupt the wearer, but to rule the wearers of the others. The twisting of Gollum (and to some extent Frodo and Boromir) comes from his close proximity to the will of Sauron, fused with the ring.
2006-11-29 22:33:38 · answer #7 · answered by s1mon 1 · 3⤊ 0⤋
gollum possesed the 1 ring that rules them all, saurons ring, The 9 rings made for the 9 mortal men (kings) is what turned the 9 kings into ring rathes known as the nazgull, led by the witchking of agmar,
2006-11-30 04:28:36 · answer #8 · answered by Brad 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because he was a hobbit and the black riders were humans. Also the black riders were humans who had possessed other rings whereas the hobbit hadn't.
2006-11-29 22:46:14 · answer #9 · answered by Katri-Mills 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Smeegol is not one of the nine human kings that received the rings of Middle Earth considering he's a Hobbit. When Zauron created the ring of power and was taken away from it, only the kings were affected since they were 'more corruptible'.
2006-11-29 22:26:28 · answer #10 · answered by once_a_nerd 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Because Smegol/Gollum wasn't human
2006-11-30 05:38:19 · answer #11 · answered by Bea 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋