For example, some economic crimes can not be sued after ten year if there has been no claim in the meantime.
2006-11-29 20:42:07 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
I don't care if I'm the only person who thinks this... but I wish it wasn't like that.
Crimes shouldn't have an expiration.
2006-11-29 20:44:30 · answer #1 · answered by ?Johanna Loves Superman? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because it is unfair to prosecute someone 10 years later. Witnesses may die or forget, evidence may go away.. in all actuality.. people can't remember what they had for breakfast yesterday, much less a crime 40 years ago.
They do this so the person accused has a fair shot at an honest trial without time taking a toll on everyone.
2006-11-30 04:49:20 · answer #2 · answered by Caitlin 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Crimes prescribed because the complainants must immediately file their grievances without the offender waiting for it to come so that they need not wait for a lifetime.
2006-11-30 04:44:35 · answer #3 · answered by FRAGINAL, JTM 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋