what is the difference between the meanings of the 2 sentences- can i have u all TO myself and can i have you all FOR myself...?
which 1 is right? and why? which structure is commonly used?
2006-11-29 18:05:11 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Education & Reference ➔ Words & Wordplay
No, the first sentence is correct (and I'm a graduate student in English): "Can I have you all to myself?" "I want you all to myself!" Your second sentence is not grammatically correct. I can't exactly explain why. It's just the subtle difference between the two prepositions, and this difference is hard to pinpoint within this type of idiomatic phrase.
2006-11-29 18:23:17 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Either one would be correct, actually. I think it could depend on what part of the country -- or what country -- you come from. The song writers tend to use "all to myself," so I guess that would be an indication that it is more common.
2006-11-30 02:14:34 · answer #2 · answered by auntb93again 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Usually "to" is more common useage, in the sense that you don't want to share with anyone else.
"For" has more of a meaning of wanting "all" of somebody.
2006-11-30 02:07:59 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
"...all FOR myself..." is the right one, because they're FOR you, not TO you. You can "keep TO yourself", and then you can "have someone FOR yourself".
2006-11-30 02:11:08 · answer #4 · answered by Dark 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋
the second is correct
2006-11-30 02:07:07 · answer #5 · answered by Tiffi Poodle Pie 69 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋
2nd one is wright
2006-11-30 02:16:07 · answer #6 · answered by rajghar104 1 · 0⤊ 2⤋