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prove or disprove: for every nonempty set A there exists an injective function f: A - P(A).

hint: observe that for each a element of A, the set {a} is an element of P(A).

2006-11-29 15:14:35 · 4 answers · asked by st234 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

4 answers

i take it that p(a) is the power set. So that is equal to all possible combinations of set A.

The cardnality of p(a) is also always 2^n where n is the number of elements of set A. You can prove that through induction.

If f : X → Y is an injective function, then Y has at least as many elements as X, in the sense of cardinal numbers.

given that the cardnality of p(a) is always strictly larger than A (even for the empty set) we can say that all elements of set A have an injective relation with p(a). They are not strickly bijective (one-to-one). Here is a nice picture of injective of what it would look like: http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/thumb/0/02/Injection.svg/200px-Injection.svg.png

also the converse.
P(a)→ A is always surjective.

2006-11-29 15:30:19 · answer #1 · answered by xian gaon 2 · 0 1

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2016-12-29 16:52:37 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

If by P(A) you mean the power set of A, then it's false, since the power set always has more elements.

2006-11-29 15:23:41 · answer #3 · answered by bictor717 3 · 0 1

So I guess the function f(x) = {x} works fine?

2006-11-29 15:20:35 · answer #4 · answered by stephen m 4 · 0 0

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