"E" Implies "A" and "C".
"A" Implies "F" and "E".
"E", Therefore "F".
2006-11-29 15:01:33 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
The goal is to show how the conclusion, "F", is reached through the rules of implication... Modus Ponens, Modus Tollens, etc., and by the line number(s) in which each rule applies.
2006-11-29 15:23:34 · update #1
I think you are taking a logic course and normally I wouldn't help answering questions for possible homeworks.
But... It's not that hard.
1. E > (A * C)
2. A > (F * E)
3. E
4. (A * C) 1, 3 MP
5 A 4 Simp
6 (F * E) 2, 5 MP
Conclusion F 6 Simp
The rest is up to you.
2006-11-29 21:26:23 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The statements create a circular fallacy.
E implies A and A implies E.
2006-11-30 02:13:39 · answer #2 · answered by Michael M 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
E = F, E and C
A eliminates C as you don't see C there
That leaves E= F, E
We already know E=E, but we also learned that E=F too.
2006-11-29 23:16:29 · answer #3 · answered by gregory_dittman 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The question is unclear. The conclusion is not a logical conclusion.
2006-11-29 23:11:01 · answer #4 · answered by Piguy 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Dude, I'm preety sure that the common man has already passed that goal..
2006-11-30 00:01:48 · answer #5 · answered by *~SoL~ * Pashaa del Ñuñcaa. 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yeah, and....
You must be taking Logic and you are a little confused.....?
2006-11-29 23:07:26 · answer #6 · answered by eagleperch 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
uffffffffff dont ask the same again
2006-11-29 23:09:01 · answer #7 · answered by CHANDAN G 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋