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How do I prove that:
if A, B, and C are non-empty sets,
A [is contained by] B [is contained by] C,
and the cardinality of A = the cardinality of C,

the cardinality of A = the cardinality of B

I can't figure out how to start this one.

2006-11-29 14:26:08 · 3 answers · asked by dopplerjeff5000 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

Sorry, I should have specified these are indeed infinite sets.

2006-11-29 14:36:11 · update #1

3 answers

If A is a subset of C and A has the same cardinality as C, then the sets A and C are the same.

I guess as a proof, you could assume that there is an element in C that is not in A...in which case the cardinality of C would be greater than the cardinality of A, which is a contradiction.

Then B gets trapped in the middle. A = B = C.

2006-11-29 14:34:44 · answer #1 · answered by Jim Burnell 6 · 0 0

if Cardinal value of C is the same as the cardinal value of A it means the number of elements in C is the same as the no of elements in A,since C is a subset of A (given)
also the cardinality of B must be the same as the cardinality of C as C is also a subset of B
so by transitive property cardinality of B=cardinality of C

2006-11-29 22:30:34 · answer #2 · answered by raj 7 · 0 0

Well, if the sets are finite, it is easy. You know that |A|<=|B|<=|C|, so since |A|=|C|, you must have |A|=|B|=|C|.

If you're dealing with infinite sets, its a little harder. I'll get back to you in a minute.

2006-11-29 22:30:32 · answer #3 · answered by stephen m 4 · 0 0

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