2006-11-29 14:07:47 · 10 answers · asked by mandy m 1 in Social Science ➔ Economics
yes...2, 4, 6
If the middle number is exactly different from the first number as it is from the third number.
2006-11-29 14:09:15 · answer #1 · answered by just browsin 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes, if one of the numbers is the average of the other two, such as 1, 2, 3 (2 is the average of 1 and 3).
But what does this have to do with economics?
2006-11-29 14:35:41 · answer #2 · answered by NC 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes.
2, 4, 6
3, 6, 9
1, 5, 9
2.5, 8, 13.5
It's easy to creat such a thing. Just pick a number you wish the average to be, multiply that by 3, subtract the average, and any two numbers that add up to the result can be the other numbers in the sequence.
2006-11-29 14:18:48 · answer #3 · answered by Deirdre H 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The average of 2, 2, and 2 is 2.
2006-11-29 14:09:54 · answer #4 · answered by Medic123456789 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
if i am correct the if the numbers were 1 2 3 their average would be 2
*raises an eyebrow
2006-11-29 14:14:02 · answer #5 · answered by beckdawgydawg 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, 100, 150, and 200
or any 3 numbers where the middle number is exactly in the middle of the other 2.
2006-11-29 14:11:50 · answer #6 · answered by Dan H 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Any three consecutive numbers will produce an average that is the middle number..
and like just browsin showed, any three nubers where the difference between the first and second is 'balanced' by an equal difference between second and third:
1,3 and 5
1,6 and 11 etc.
2006-11-29 14:13:48 · answer #7 · answered by Bart S 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes, 1 +1+1, 2+2+2, 3+3+3, 4+4+4, etc.
2006-11-29 14:10:32 · answer #8 · answered by Alan L 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Of course. Basically it just means the middle number is the average of the other two: eg, 7,8,9, average is 8.
2006-11-29 14:14:24 · answer #9 · answered by EQ 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
50,70,30 average 50 esay as eating pie and free pizza play five nights at freddys 2 awesome game bro
2015-01-06 13:06:39 · answer #10 · answered by Karim 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋