2006-11-29 12:20:54 · 9 answers · asked by Nicole S 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
It's almost 2/3, but not exactly.
Instead 667/1000 is already in lowest terms.
The prime factors of 667 are 23 x 29
The prime factors of 1000 are 2 x 2 x 2 x 5 x 5 x 5.
They have none in common so you can't reduce it further.
2006-11-29 12:22:52 · answer #1 · answered by Puzzling 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
In order to reduce a fraction to lowest terms, you need to divide the top and bottom numbers by the greatest common factor or GCF. The only factors of 667 are 23 and 29. Since neither of these are factors of 1000, GCF(667, 1000) = 1. Thus, your fraction is already in lowest terms.
2006-11-29 20:31:18 · answer #2 · answered by iuneedscoachknight 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
667/1000 is in lowest terms, 1000 is made up of only 5's and 2's, since 667 is not even or ending in 5 or 0, it cannot be divided by 5 or 2.
2006-11-29 20:23:57 · answer #3 · answered by Nicknamr 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
They're right it is in lowest terms.
Get your parents to buy you a graphing calcualtor. You WILL NEED IT eventually, and you'll be able to use it now. I bought mine my senior year in High School because I needed a calculator and figured I would need it anyway- I'm now 26 and recently took an advanced math course at the local Jr. College, and my calculator was STILL nicer than the professors. Their not like computers- they don't get technilogically outdated very fast.
2006-11-29 20:31:48 · answer #4 · answered by mikarose333 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
it is in lowest terms
2006-11-29 20:24:15 · answer #5 · answered by Melly N 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
.67? or 1?
2006-11-29 20:28:44 · answer #6 · answered by CruelNails 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
alredy is in low trerm
2006-11-29 20:29:59 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
It's as reduced as it will go.
2006-11-29 20:57:44 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
already is
2006-11-29 20:55:22 · answer #9 · answered by ian_d_r_8 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋