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Julie throws a fair red dice once and a fair blue dice once.
Calculate the probability that Julie gets a six on both the red dice and blue dice.
Secondly, calculate the probability that Julie gets at least one six.

2006-11-29 05:28:44 · 5 answers · asked by mbchelsea 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

5 answers

both: 1/36 one: 1/6

2006-11-29 05:37:21 · answer #1 · answered by Titainsrule 4 · 0 1

For the first probability, you multiply the separate probablilites:

Six on both die: 1/6 * 1/6 = 1/36

This is like saying "The probability of a AND the probability of b."

For the second probability, you subtract the chance of getting no sixes from one:

Six on either die: 1 - (5/6 * 5/6) = 11/36

This is like saying "The probability of a OR the probability of b."

2006-11-29 13:33:10 · answer #2 · answered by Dave 6 · 3 0

1/36 11/36

2006-11-29 13:56:43 · answer #3 · answered by ag_iitkgp 7 · 0 0

Fifty-fifty each roll. If I'm wrong I'll apologize. But I seem to recall reading that you could roll a six (or any number) a thousand times and the next roll's odds are unchanged.
Technically true, maybe, but our gut feeling gives it the lie, n' est ce pas?

2006-11-29 13:42:23 · answer #4 · answered by Beejee 6 · 0 1

1/6, 1/6

2006-11-29 13:31:07 · answer #5 · answered by dragonofhonesty 5 · 0 2

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