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2006-11-29 03:08:27 · 8 answers · asked by cesar c 1 in Arts & Humanities History

8 answers

" The Emancipation Proclamation did not free all slaves in the United States. Rather, it declared free only those slaves living in states not under Union control". William Seward, Lincoln's secretary of state, commented, "We show our symapthy with slavery by emancipating slaves where we cannot reach them and holding them in bondage where we can set them free." Lincoln was fully aware of the irony, but he did not want to antagonize the slave states loyal to the Union by setting their slaves free.
Lincoln was reluctant to issue an Emancipation Proclamation but you would have thought from what one is taught in class these days this was his primary concern. He issued the proclamation to save the Union making impossible for foreign Governments to intervene on behalf of the Confederacy. Even though the English supported (indirectly) slavery, they like other countries were officially against the practice. By his actions, Lincoln was showing the US was against slavery but not the Confederacy. If like the leaders of these countries at the time, you took the time to read and study the act you would see it does nothing and in fact, Lincoln thought that the Afro American was not the equal of whites and his plan was to resettle the slaves in either the Amazon or Western Texas.

Most people are not aware that there was a series of action and even proclamations for instance Lincolns correspondence of October 14, 1862 to the military and civilian authorities of occupied Louisiana.

“Major General Butler, Governor Shepley, & and [sic] all having military and naval authority under the United States within the S[t]ate of Louisiana. The bearer of this, Hon. John E. Bouligny, a citizen of Louisiana, goes to the State seeking to have such of the people thereof as desire to avoid the unsatisfactory prospect before them, and to have peace again upon the old terms under the constitution of the United States, to manifest such desire by elections of members to the Congress of the United States particularly, and perhaps a legislature, State officers, and United States Senators friendly to their object. I shall be glad for you and each of you, to aid him and all others acting for this object, as much as possible. In all available ways, give the people a chance to express their wishes at these elections. Follow forms of law as far as convenient, but at all events get the expression of the largest number of the people possible. All see how such action will connect with, and affect the proclamation of September 22nd. Of course, the men elected should be gentlemen of character willing to swear support to the Constitution, as of old, and known to be above reasonable suspicion of duplicity. (CW 5:462-3, italics added).

NOTE: The italic show that Lincoln rather then issue an Emancipation Proclamation or free the slaves was still willing to allow the Southern States back into the Union. One will find this all the way up to the 1865 visit to Camp Lookout.

At the same time Lincoln was issuing the Emancipation Proclamation he was petitioning his cabinet to negotiate and appropriate funds to force the Blacks else where.

In 1864, Jeff Davis and other Southerner leaders would contemplate outlawing slavery and probably would have if the opportunity had arisen.

God Bless You and The Southern People.

2006-11-29 04:28:27 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

First of all, the emancipation proclamation itself was not lawful due to the fact that slavery was constitutional and the only way to overturn that was to trigger the amendment process, this decree was straight from Lincoln,

Now lets say this is technically legal:
1. The Confederacy was not a part of the United States so any US law could not apply
2.If effective, slaves in union slave states would not be free

so in the end, the emancipation did not free a single person nor was it a legal statement

2014-01-12 11:33:56 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Nowhere. It applied only to the states in open rebellion. But since it could not be enforced there, no slaves were set free.

As for the Border States, if it had applies to them, they might very well have left the Union.

As it was, the Emancipation Proclamation went into effect in an area ONLY after that area had been occupied by the Union army. For us here in Texas, that day was June 19, 1865.

2006-11-29 03:14:03 · answer #3 · answered by derek1836 3 · 4 0

The Emancipation Proclamation freed the slaves in all areas in open rebellion against the US government. This excluded DC, Kentucky, and other slave states still in the Union.

It was not enforceable in areas unoccupied by the Union Army, but many slaves got the word and left anyway.

2006-11-29 04:27:13 · answer #4 · answered by loryntoo 7 · 1 0

The Emancipation Proclamation replaced into written by using Abraham Lincoln. It replaced into written to loose slaves interior the South side that's universal because of the fact the accomplice states in the time of the Civil conflict. it did loose the slaves interior the accomplice states. the Emancipation Proclamation freed assorted slaves if no longer all of them.

2016-10-13 08:41:56 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Runaway slaves who made it to Union lines had been held by the Union army as "contraband of war" in contraband camps; when the proclamation took effect they were told at midnight that they were free to leave.

2006-11-29 03:52:08 · answer #6 · answered by Moebuggy 3 · 0 0

Um...the States?

2006-11-29 03:09:54 · answer #7 · answered by The_Cookie_Goddess 3 · 0 2

n

2013-11-05 00:41:46 · answer #8 · answered by Nicholas 1 · 0 0

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