Example:
If you're cought driving under influence, and your salary is 1.000.000$ you would be fined 10%, so 100.000$.
If some other person who has a 5000$ salary is cought in the same situation he wil be fined 10% so 500$
Do you think this is fair? or should both guys pay the same amount.
2006-11-29 02:07:37 · 9 answers · asked by caesareor 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Why does everybody think its better to hit the person who has more harder for the same thing? You committed the crime you suffer the punishment, whatever it is. It's the same mentality as these people who claim that rich people get off light on crimes. I think its all a matter of resenting those who have money and a desire to take it away from them. Go out and earn it yourself if you want to be rich.
Why should the penalty for speeding be a monetary fine? Why shouldn't it be something more appropriate like picking up litter along the highway? Seems a lot more sensible to me. The reason its money is so the government has another excuse to reach into your pocket. Why are you so eager to take money from one group to give to the government?
2006-11-29 02:22:05 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Actually that sounds not only reasonable but the way it should be. Think about it. To the person who has a $1M income $500 dollars is petty cash, he'd make that in one hour. To the person who makes $5000 a year $500 is five weeks worth of his work.
If the crime is the same shouldn't the punishment be the same as well? If they were both put in jail for the same amount of time the punishment would be equal.
2006-11-29 02:20:04 · answer #2 · answered by namsaev 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Wow, that is a great idea. your my kind of guy. That might make the pain actually felt a little more by the affluent. Here in Montana we have people with 5 DUIs driving around.. A $240 fine is not even wine money to some people.
I would vote for you!!!!
2006-11-29 02:57:01 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The idea of a fine is to inconvenience/punish you. Clearly, a $100 fine doesn't hurt much if your income is $1million, so yes, a sliding scale fairly applies the punishment (amount of 'pain' involved) even though the amounts seem quite different.
2006-11-29 02:10:47 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes it is fair, in your question both guys had to pay 10% of their paycheck. now if one had to pay 10% and the other 5% that would not be fair
2006-11-29 02:22:33 · answer #5 · answered by jared 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
What should happen is we stop taxing income. Flat national sales tax. No more of take it from the rich.
2006-11-29 02:15:20 · answer #6 · answered by GOPneedsarealconservative 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. Income should not play any factor in sentencing. That's just inherently wrong.
2006-11-29 02:19:32 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
I think that's partally fair, b/c low guy can't afford everything.
2006-11-29 02:19:52 · answer #8 · answered by JASNJ 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I gurantee you if you do that it will be considered unconstitutional.
2006-11-29 02:47:27 · answer #9 · answered by On Time 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋