Let f(x) = 1 when x is rational and let f(x) = 0 when x is irrational. What is the probablity that f(f(x)) is 1?
2006-11-28 15:07:42 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
ok so it was a bad trick question.
2006-11-28 15:15:06 · update #1
Since f(x) can only return 0 or 1, f(f(x)) is either f(0) or f(1). Since 0 and 1 are both rational numbers, f(f(x)) will always evaluate to 1.
Probability = 1
2006-11-28 15:28:22 · answer #1 · answered by dbucciar 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
100%
f(x) can either be 1 or 0 since both 1 and 0 are rational f(f(x)) will always be 1.
2006-11-28 23:11:48 · answer #2 · answered by Morkeleb 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
well, since f(x) can only be 0 or 1
then f(f(x)) can only be f(0) or f(1)
0 and 1 are both rational, so f(0)=1 and f(1)=1
it appears to me that f(f(x)) must be 1
the probability that it is 1 is therefore 100%
2006-11-28 23:12:11 · answer #3 · answered by enginerd 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Ditto. What they said.
2006-11-28 23:13:17 · answer #4 · answered by ruby 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋