2006-11-28 13:58:49 · 11 answers · asked by funnynotlost 2 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
It is possible,yes.
2006-11-28 14:36:34 · answer #1 · answered by cobrasnake 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think that it depends on the woman. Some women can watch a sexy scene in a movie and have an orgasm, without any physical stimulation at all. Others can read erotica and achieve the same. And does masturbation count as "foreplay"? If not, then the answer would definitely be "Yes, Yes, YES!!!" (as Meg Ryan exclaimed in the restaurant scene in "When Harry Met Sally")!
2006-11-28 14:30:18 · answer #2 · answered by KristenOne 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I guess it could be possible. I have never had one without intercourse or foreplay. As mentioned in the above answer... if masturbation is not considered foreplay... then the answer is yes.
2006-11-28 14:32:55 · answer #3 · answered by crazy4eachother 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A good friend of mine told me that she woke up while she was having a real orgasm because of a hot dream!
2006-11-28 14:38:38 · answer #4 · answered by Dees 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes.
2006-11-28 16:08:17 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, some women can just 'think' themselves into an orgasm. Others can climax just with their breast / nipple stimulation.
2006-11-28 14:53:21 · answer #6 · answered by knihelpu 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes !!... I have had women orgasm over the phone .others while they performed oral on me..
2006-11-28 15:06:08 · answer #7 · answered by hungalmost9 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
oooohhhh YES
2006-11-28 14:51:33 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes its possible
2006-11-28 15:00:20 · answer #9 · answered by morganslilone 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i have, but i was at work, sitting indian style, sneezed, and bent funny...it was a nice feeling at work!
2006-11-28 14:38:53 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋