If you set up a revocable living trust prior to marriage and do not have a prenuptial agreement, your wife may be entitled to a portion of this estate ... and her rights increase with time.
If you are having difficulties in your marriage, you may want to check with an estate attorney to verify information.
More importantly, the laws for revocable trusts can change and to protect your wealth prior to a marriage a pre-nuptial is your best bet!
2006-11-28 10:44:26
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answer #1
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answered by allyinminneapolis 4
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If it is in a irrevocable trust with only your name on it, when you get married your wife will not have access to that money - provided you never have it in a joint account with her. Once you do that, you have made it a "martial asset" to which she can claim an interest in. However, depending on what state you are in, if you kick the bucket or go through an ugly divorce, she can go to court and tie it all up for years before the courts decide what to do with it. I agree that a pre-nump is probably a good idea.
2006-11-28 10:45:33
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answer #2
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answered by janine_says 2
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at the start, this step-brother isn't a step,he's their 0.5 brother. If each and every of the youngsters have an same mom yet a diverse father, that makes them 0.5 siblings. If she had a son and also you had little ones through yet another lady once you married, then all little ones might want to be step siblings. i'm at a loss for words as to precisely what your relationship with the moms has to do in telling the youngsters. there's no longer something to be embarrassed about your wifes previous, those circumstances are on going even at the moment. protecting it from them in straight forward words shows shame and the youngster in contact will experience he change right into a mistake, so unhappy. they ought to were instructed on the very earliest age as accessible and they ought to benefit once accessible now..
2016-10-07 22:31:52
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answer #3
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answered by ? 4
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It all depends on the state you live in. If your in California all property bought during the marriage is community property and will be divided into half. Any property bought before the marriage is just yours! The amount of years married means nothing, unless of course she wants alimony..lol
2006-11-28 10:46:24
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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Yes, but has be to after 10 years she has a right to anything you have.. I would have a prenup signed and then go from there.... after you marry a women she becomes the heir to everything you have unless stated otherwise....... so if you intend on getting married get the lil paper sayin prenup so she has no right to any of that.
2006-11-28 10:45:51
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Nope, what you come in with; is what you leave with. The only thing that is divide is whats gained or acquired while you both were married up until the divorce being finialized.
2006-11-28 10:43:42
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answer #6
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answered by They Love ME......... 2
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This stuff varies a lot by jurisdiction. Get yourself a good local lawyer and ask the question of him or her.
2006-11-28 10:47:00
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answer #7
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answered by Helen W. 7
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no she wouldnt have acess to any of it however fromt he day the two of you were married if she and IF SHE is working and you two have children then she will be entitled to some what of what you two accumilate together from marriage date but not entitled to anything prior
2006-11-28 10:44:05
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answer #8
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answered by treatau 6
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ask a lawyer. you probably need a prenup.
2006-11-28 10:41:43
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answer #9
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answered by Lindsey M 3
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you need a lawyer
2006-11-28 10:44:58
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answer #10
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answered by peggy1purple 1
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