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Me teacher had an extra credit which was to give the last digits of pi. Now I know the answer be 2 but the lady wants a proof. So me question is how do you prove the last digit of pi is 2?

Now, don't give me no fronting answers like its not 2 or ****, cause i no it is, *****. My mom told me, and i know you ain't gonna diss my mom cause if you do, im gonna have to get over there and beat some crap over your head so hard you won't know its sunday or monday.

So help.

2006-11-28 10:02:34 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

6 answers

I think your teacher is pulling your leg. Pi is a non-terminating decimal. It doesn't have a "last digit" that is currently known.

Many calculations of pi have been taken out to very large numbers of places. But saying that those calculations have been taken out to some particular place is not the same as saying that that value is the value of the *last* digit.

Just the last one that has been calculated.

Sorry!

2006-11-28 10:10:56 · answer #1 · answered by hokiejthweatt 3 · 0 0

Pi is an infinite decimal. Unlike numbers such as 3, 9.876, and 4.5, which have finitely many nonzero numbers to the right of the decimal place, pi has infinitely many numbers to the right of the decimal point.
If you write pi down in decimal form, the numbers to the right of the 0 never repeat in a pattern. Some infinite decimals do have patterns - for instance, the infinite decimal .3333333... has all 3's to the right of the decimal point, and in the number .123456789123456789123456789... the sequence 123456789 is repeated. However, although many mathematicians have tried to find it, no repeating pattern for pi has been discovered - in fact, in 1768 Johann Lambert proved that there cannot be any such repeating pattern.

As a number that cannot be written as a repeating decimal or a finite decimal (you can never get to the end of it) pi is irrational: it cannot be written as a fraction (the ratio of two integers).

2006-11-28 18:10:10 · answer #2 · answered by Summer_Laine 2 · 0 0

Pi is an irrational number, so therefore the demical expansion is nonending and nonrepeating. This means that there is no last digit of Pi.

There is a last digit to the approximation of Pi however (3.142).

2006-11-28 18:09:23 · answer #3 · answered by AibohphobiA 4 · 0 0

Your teacher did not say what base you were writing pi in.
Therefore, lets use base (2/(3-pi)). Note that it is perfectly legal to use a noninteger base.

Then pi in that base = 3.2, because 3 + 2/base = pi. So pi ends with 2.

2006-11-28 18:12:00 · answer #4 · answered by stephen m 4 · 0 0

hey! how about asking your mother for the proof and then tell this to the proffessor ;). Or ask her how does she know it. I guess only the person that is sure that the last digit really IS 2 know how to proof it, or at least know how she knows it.

2006-11-28 18:10:16 · answer #5 · answered by klara 2 · 0 0

Dude, if I were you, I would be more worried about english than math. Lmao.

2006-11-28 18:18:35 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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