Yes it is, look up Fermats little theorem.
It states that a^p = a mod p for all a and for any prime p.
The proof is as follows:
examine the list {a,2*a,3*a,4*a...(p-1)*a}
each entry in the list is distinct, becuase we can divide in Fp (it is a field!) (proof: if na = ma mod p then n = m mod p)
Furthermore since we have a list of p-1 elements, none of which are 0, we have a bijective mapping:
{a,2*a,3*a,4*a...(p-1)*a} <-> {1,2,3,4,5...p-1}
now simply multiple both sets of lists
on the left we have
a*2*a*3*a*4*a*...*(p-1)*a = (p-1)!*a^(p-1)
on the right we have 1*2*3*4*...*p-1 = (p-1)!
and these are equal mod p:
(p-1)!a^(p-1) = (p-1)! mod p
since (p-1)! is none zero, cancel it to be left with:
a^(p-1) = 1 mod p
and multiply by a...
a^p = a mod p
QED
2006-11-28 01:07:39
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answer #1
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answered by UK_Dave1999 2
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Hey, someone asked me this today, the answer above looks correct.
2006-11-28 14:30:35
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answer #2
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answered by raz 5
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