If a man marries a woman with the title "Lady", does that automatically give him the title of "Lord"?

Answer 1

No. A man determines his wife's status, unless hers is higher, in which case the status of each is unaffected. The husbands of the Countess of Sutherland, Countess of Mar and Baroness Darcy (three of the oldest titles in the UK) are all called 'Mr'.

It is down to the sexist notion that a man can bestow his status on his wife, but not vice-versa, like a woman takes his surname but he does not take hers.

EDIT: Patrioticjock is wrong. In Scotland barons are not members of the peerage and did not sit in the House of Lords. The Scottish equivalent of the English 'baron' is 'lord'.

Answer 2

Definitely not!
A woman marrying a Peer or Prince becomes of his rank automatically - a man marrying a Peeress or Princess does not.

Think about it - Queen Elizabeth and Prince Philip - not King Philip - most obvious example. Yet her parents were King George & Queen Elizabeth.

The same goes with Knighthoods and Damehoods. Sir Peter X marries - wife becomes Mary, Lady X {NOT Lady Mary X - that means she's a Peer's daughter}.
Dame Mary Y marries - the couple is introduced as "Mr Peter and Dame Mary Y"
Hangover from the real patriarchal days.

Answer 3

No, because "Lady" is usually a courtesy title and not a substantive one. Titles also pass through the male line as opposed to the female line. Two examples of this would be Lady Sarah Chatto (nee Armstrong-Jones) and Lady Helen Taylor (nee Windsor). Neither of their husband's are "Lord's", nor do any of their children hold titles.

Answer 4

Lord and Lady are not titles, but salutations.

Titles (in the UK) in order of rank include Duke, Earl, Marquess, Viscount, Baron, and Baronet.

You would call a female with any of those titles a "Lady", but you would also call the daughter of the highest two ranks a "Lady" even though she doesn't hold the title.

So, no, there is no automatic assumption of the moniker "Lord".

Answer 5

certain, besides the actual undeniable actuality that she will opt for no longer to apply it, like woman Haden-shopper (Jamie Lee Curtis). The spouse of a marquess, earl, viscount or baron is a marchioness, countess, viscountess or baroness, yet is regularly refered to as 'woman X'. The spouse of a knight or baronet (a hereditary knight) is termed 'woman (husband's lastname)'. And a lady who marries the more youthful son of a duke or marquess, who's named as an party Lord John Russell, might want to be referred to as woman John Russell. woman Colin Campbell maintains to anger her ex-husband through making use of the call many years after their short marriage ended. women individuals that sit down in the abode of Lords favor to be referred to as 'Baroness' even inspite of the actuality that barons are regularly referred to as 'Lord', so that they don't seem at a loss for words with the different halves of friends or knights. they prefer it to be sparkling that they have the call of their personal top, so that you'll be able to say 'Baroness Thatcher' no longer 'woman Thatcher' (inspite of the actuality that from 1990-ninety 2 she change into purely 'woman Thatcher' as her husband change right into a baronet).

Answer 6

No way. One reason is that our country like most is very male associated. So if anything, once the lady marries a guy she can either change her name to his or keep her own. Whereas the lady has that option but a guy does not. He can't ever really change his name, especially to match with a female's.

Answer 7

no because it's the man that can carry a title over to a woman, not the other way around.

Answer 8

No. A wife assumes the class/title of her husband, but a man doesn't take it from his wife.

Answer 9

i don't hear of ladies marrying below their status very often

Answer 10

yes