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somebody we know is pregnant and the social services have told her that the father is not aloud to be at the birth and if he is in any way involved with the child the child will be put into care. upon hearing it has disturbed me a little bit because to me the only reason they might do this is if hes a peodophille what other reason could there be? any proffesional opinions would be welcomed

2006-11-27 06:34:09 · 3 answers · asked by pagey 1 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

3 answers

If child services has said something like this it is most likely because the father has a history-it may be child sexual abuse but it could also be a history of physical abuse which may include one or more child fatalities. This is a pretty extreme move by children's services so it is probably a significant and serious history.

2006-11-28 06:35:39 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Drug addict, rapist, abuser, alcoholic... there are many reasons why people lose their kids that have nothing to do with pedophilia. Some people are just jackasses that don't deserve to have a hand in raising children (of course, they should just be sterilized, but that is an entirely different issue).

SS is obviously doing this for the well-being of the child and the mother, they aren't doing it because it gets their rocks off to keep kids from loving, decent parents.

2006-11-27 06:52:03 · answer #2 · answered by Goose&Tonic 6 · 0 0

There could be many reasons, but these would be the most common: he molests children, he has charges against him for abuse, or there is a restraining order against him.

2006-11-27 06:47:05 · answer #3 · answered by ne_patriots2005 4 · 0 0

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