somebody we know is pregnant and the social services have told her that the father is not aloud to be at the birth and if he is in any way involved with the child the child will be put into care. upon hearing it has disturbed me a little bit because to me the only reason they might do this is if hes a peodophille what other reason could there be? any proffesional opinions would be welcomed
2006-11-27
06:34:09
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3 answers
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asked by
pagey
1
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics