why did latin america developed differently than north america even though they were both foundedby european?

Question

countries?

Answer 1

Good question. The Spanish got to the Americas first, of course, and their major efforts were in Mexico (the Aztec empire), the Caribbean, Peru (the Inca), and Bolivia (the silver mines at Potosi). In North America, they didn't do much, although they were the first in Florida, the Gulf Coast, California, and the American southwest. Their rule there was weak.

The Portuguese were right on the heels of the Spanish, and in the Treaty of Tortesillas(?) the pope gave Brazil to the Portuguese, and everything else to the Spanish.

So it was Spain and Portugal that colonized Latin America. Their style was to plunder the countries (especially for gold), and to enslave and convert the natives, forcibly if necessary. Gold, God, and Glory. Significantly, there were very few Spanish and Portuguese women that came to the New World.

The French, and later the English, came to North America. The French, who eventually lost out, tried to convert the Indians, were interested in trapping and trading for furs, and also brought relatively few women from Europe. The French probablym had better relations with the Indians than any other colonial power.

The English, on the other hand, brought lots of women, and they were interested in establishing English colonial settlements without much interaction with the Indians. The English were interested in always obtaining more land, and in pushing the Indians out of that land.

The English model ultimately prevailed in North America, and the French and Spanish were ejected. In Latin America, Spanish and Portuguese rule was both heavy-handed and administratively weak. When revolution came in the early 19th century, the tottering colonial governments fell. The problem was that since the colonial power was centralized, there were no democratic traditions, and strongman rule became the pattern.

That's why North America and Latin America are different.

Answer 2

The Saxons. They conquered the British Isles before the Normans and brought the concept of "consent of the governed" with them. Every man had a right to stand up and speak at a moot regardless of rank. The Normans never quite got rid of that, but they tried. The concept is a major part of all the English speaking countries.

Spain did not have that tradition. They stressed obedience to the crown and the church and no rights for the common man. They brought that to the New World, only changing it so natives had fewer rights than those born in Spain.

None of the Spanish colonies yelled "no taxation without representation." They did eventually rebel, but it was not as organized or passionate as what happened in the USA or as civilized as what happened in Canada. In most cases, the wealthy upper classes were fighting against the majority of the people. In contrast, it was the wealthy upper classes in the USA and the merchants who led the revolution.

Answer 3

There are many reasons, but a couple of the major reasons are that they do not have the natural resources and money to get what natural resources that exist and they do not have the determination that cold weather brings about.

The US had a lot of people that came over with money and people that could get investors. The Latin American countries did not have access to so much money and therefore did not expand as quickly.

All of the Latin American countries depended upon farming for their livelihood and did not expand their horizons beyond those farms. They did not have the drive that the northern countries have.

Most warm weather people are not as adventurous and not as determined as cold weather people. There is no cold weather to get protection from and therefore no need to get more than you need to survive today.

Take care,
Troy

Answer 4

My guess would be that the Spanish are hard to make conform to another society. Just look at California and the attitude of the spanish population there, most are for California returning to a mexico like culture and they are very vocal about it. I live in New York and many Spanish people live here and never learn to speak English. Mainly because it is not needed because the spanish neighborhood is spanish speaking and we do provide all resources in spanish from courts to welfare, all can be had in spanish. If you go to Miami you will find many store employees do not speak English at all and if you do speak English it will often be met with blank stares and the question Que? (what? ). So I think it is because it is harder to get spanish populations to change or conform to another culture.

Answer 5

it's an interesting question. I guess our countries were far more looted by our conquerors (Spain) than the US was by UK.

also, the personality of US founders is totally different from the native populations that inhabited Latin America. I guess you guys have a more enterprising spirit.

plus, we (Mexico) wera a colony for almost 300 years. religious factor played a role too (catholic conversion imbued fear).

Answer 6

Henry Ford

Answer 7

In us of a of america (u . s . a . particularly) the term "Latino" is used very loosely and It usually refers to a individual of Latin American descent regardless of race, nationality or ethnic historical past. Technically nonetheless, a Latino could have a minimum of a few connection to the unique eu "Latin" ethnic team while "Hispanics" could be of any race, as long as they arrive from a Spanish speaking history. i stumble on it exciting that maximum Italian individuals have forgotten that they too are of Latin descent and that they now lump themselves in (or are lumped in) with the greater mainstream white Anglo-Saxon individuals.