I want to have visitors staying, but what makes the difference between a visitor and a dweller. For instance they get their mail sent here. If they become a dweller do they get ownership rights? This is confusing me. If anyone can advise Id be very grateful. thanks
2006-11-27 04:49:12 · 15 answers · asked by green_womble 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Other - Society & Culture
It would be best to call the CAB or a solicitor, as people can gain sitting tenant rights after a certain amount of time.
2006-11-27 04:53:23 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
You may be referring to squatter's rights. Of course, that is when the person is staying without permission from the owner. Some states have laws that can grant ownership of property to someone if they can live there a certain amount of time without the owner's permission. Here is some wiki on it.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Squatting
You may also want to look at this too.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Adverse_possession
Now, in your case, is the visitor paying anything towards the mortgage? If so, then the person may expect that they have part ownership in the house. This can be true even if their name is not on the deed. If they have been helping out with the mortgage and you do not have a rental agreement, then the relationship between you and the visitor can be viewed as a partnership. Kind of a stretch, but it can happen and the person could conceivably sue for their portion of the worth of the house. Their portion would be the percentage of what they paid vs what you paid and what is owed on the house.
This is a question you should take up with a lawyer and get professional advice. You may need to take action to protect your property.
2006-11-27 05:01:00 · answer #2 · answered by A.Mercer 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Actually it depends what state you live in. In SC this person would not own your home since they are not on the deed UNLESS you are in a state where there common law is legal and recognized in that state as a legal form of marriage. If you are common law with this person, every state where it is legal differs on what determines common law, then yes, they are entitled to a portion of your home. If you are not common law, you are just friends, then no, they could never have rights to ownership of your home unless you have stated so to them. And, if you want them gone, whether or not they pay rent they live there. They are not a visitor anymore after 14 months. You will need to have them evicted which could cause you a lot of headache. In the future don't give anyone a key and tell them they have only a week to "crash". If you give them a key or allow them to stay there for more than two weeks or allow them to get mail at your home then a pesky visitor is going to become a true pain in the butt roommate!
2016-03-28 21:45:09 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, someone living in a house does not have ownership regardless of how long they stay. Whoever's name is on the deed has the ownership rights.
2006-11-27 04:54:09 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
They can`t claim any ownership rights unless you have their name put on the house deeds as co-owners. They would be classed as a lodger.
2006-11-27 04:56:42 · answer #5 · answered by The BudMiester 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No... if it's your house, then it's like she is visiting and up are putting her up... house share, does she pay you rent? if so this should be registered for tax purposes. But just treat it like a rental.
If this lady is your partner then it's different i think she will have some rights, look up civil Partnerships?
2006-11-27 04:54:36 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
You will likely have to go to court to evict her at this point even if she is not on the lease or mortgage. Call a lawyer to be sure.
2006-11-27 04:54:03 · answer #7 · answered by wyllow 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You're kidding, aren't you. If you are, then she is no longer a visitor. May be she could be entitled to spousal support?
2006-11-27 06:00:02 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
some ownership right and may effect insurance policy.
2006-11-27 05:55:43 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nope, not at all. Not unless they are paying the mortgage and the property is in their name.
2006-11-27 05:05:58 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋