just wondered as u do
2006-11-27 03:30:39 · 15 answers · asked by Thomas M 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Other - Science
of course not
:> peace
.
2006-11-30 15:47:49 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
No. Hermaphrodites (now known as Intersex) are people who either have ambiguous genetalia (either both, or some 'intermediate') or are genetically ambiguous (XXY,X- rather than XY or XX).
Intersex people (up to 1 in 700 live births by some reports), whether they have both sets of genetalia or not, they do not have the ability to produce both sperm and egg, also it is likely that they will either not have a womb, or not have a womb capable of being impregnated. Typically they are infertile.
2006-11-27 03:46:53 · answer #2 · answered by tysonian22 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Good question. But I would say no. When having both genitalia, the male organ may not be as developed. Also they may have a womb but not ovulate. And hermaphrodites are not born for asexual reproduction, as say for instance seahorses. But saying that, stranger things have happened.
2006-11-27 03:46:42 · answer #3 · answered by Loraine 2 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Snails are hermaphrodite but need another snail. Most plants are as well but the organs develop at different times to prevent this
2006-11-27 03:39:52 · answer #4 · answered by bwadsp 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No,it's not possible. For example the common eartworm is a hermaphrodite but it must exchange sperm with another eartworm to produce offspring.
2006-11-29 16:17:40 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Errr well. Can't really think of a specific example here but I am sure that this phenomena does exist and quite frankly I find it quite freaky and bizarre.
Yes. Definitely seen something about this whole topic late on telly. Sex in the animal/insect/bug kingdom is pretty weird as it goes.
2006-11-27 03:38:00 · answer #6 · answered by Halucinagenic 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Read Dean Koontz 'The Bad Place' It is about a person who does just that - impregnates themselves but the fruit of their loins turns out to be a very malevolent force indeed!
I'm quite glad it could never happen... could you imagine!
2006-11-27 04:59:20 · answer #7 · answered by DippyGirl78 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Wouldn't have thought so as normal reproduction would have to occur. I don't think that they could get pregnant without that, like internally. It's not something I have ever really thought of before!
2006-11-27 03:34:30 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nope..
They may have all the equipment but they still only
have 1/2 the necessary chromosomes..
2006-11-27 05:26:39 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well I don't have an answer, but what a great question...
I can't see any reason why it could not happen, if you have fully functioning organs from both sexes.
2006-11-27 03:33:41 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I would very much doubt it,as only one or the other sexual organs would,if at all,be fully functional.
2006-11-28 22:23:43 · answer #11 · answered by nicky dakiamadnat600bugmunchsqig 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋