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3 answers

Prior to the 20th century, Philosophy concerned itself with religion, questions of morality, the meaning of life, what is knowledge, etc.

The early 20th century saw a movement (out of England) where they were concerned with logic and meaning. Wittgenstein is really the father of Philosophy of Language -- and was concerned with how we communicate, what is really meant by language and how people interpret language. I assume that what he meant was by analyzing language we learn its real meaning and are no longer slaves to it.

2006-11-27 03:02:21 · answer #1 · answered by Ranto 7 · 0 0

Taranto has made an interesting point - but isn't "Philosophy of Language" a separate branch of thinking called SEMANTICS?

Does this mean that philosophy itself is no longer what it was/should be? If so, where are we going with it? Are we losing our way?

(Yes, I KNOW these are questions...but some answers ARE questions - in disguise)

2006-11-27 03:24:32 · answer #2 · answered by blktiger@pacbell.net 6 · 0 0

It means Wittgenstein is myopic on langauge.

He really does think there are no philosophic problems, but errors in our use of words.

He has no sense of anything beyond tables and chairs.
No sense of critique, he doesn't understand philosophy at all.

2006-11-27 02:59:38 · answer #3 · answered by -.- 4 · 1 0

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