A question concerning a bowlers hat-trick.?

Question

If a bowler takes the last 2 wickets of the first innings in successive balls and takes the first wicket of the 2nd innings with his 1st ball, does this go down as a hat-trick?

Answer 1

Yes. It is defenitely a Hat-trick. Defenition of the rule is reproduced below:

Hat-trick occurs in cricket when a bowler dismisses three batsmen with consecutive deliveries. The deliveries may be interrupted by an over bowled by another bowler from the other end of the pitch or the other team's innings, but must be three consecutive deliveries by the individual bowler. Only wickets attributed to the bowler count; i.e., run outs do not contribute to a hat-trick.

Please note the wording "or the other team's innings", which
clears the doubt that all 3 wickets are not necessarily be taken in consecutive balls in the same innings.

For more details, please check the website:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hat-trick#Cricket

Answer 2

YES

As for the answerer below who says it has to be the same game ...... WRONG .... And 3 wickets, in successive balls, against the same opposition count as a hat trick.

Answer 3

Yes it does. The hat trick has to be completed in one match.

Ambrose and Merv Hughes have hattricks of this kind. Hughes had a complicated hat trick spread over three overs.

3 wickets of successive balls in two matches is not a hat trick.

Answer 4

yes of course, wickets of succesive 3 deliveries is consider as hat-trick, it may be of different overs, matches, innings

Answer 5

Shane Warne and Darren Gough

Answer 6

yes

Answer 7

yes

Answer 8

Yes it does.

Answer 9

YES

Answer 10

yes it is a HATRICK