cricket
2006-11-26 22:50:19 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Sports ➔ Cricket
One solution is here:
Batsman 1 hits the ball and runs 3, and fielder throws the ball which goes to the boundary as overthrows. In between, the umpire calls ONE (RUN) SHORT. So Total Runs = 3 (ran by batsmen) - 1 (One Short) + 4 (Overthrows).
So, Batsman 1 gets 6 runs and completes his Century. Also, as the batsmen ran 3 runs, the other batsman (Batsman2) will be on strike for the next ball. He hits a SIX and completes his Century, there by winning the match.
I'll have a look if there are other solutions.
Update: More solutions:
1st Ball: 1 run scored + 5 penalty runs (Ball tampering, ball hitting helmet, fieldingwith cap, fielder obstructing batsman, time-wasting by fielders, tampering of pitch)
2nd Ball: 6 runs.
2006-11-26 23:00:24 · answer #1 · answered by pressurekooker 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Batsman 1 hits the ball and runs 3, and fielder throws the ball which goes to the boundary as overthrows. In between, the umpire calls ONE (RUN) SHORT. So Total Runs = 3 (ran by batsmen) - 1 (One Short) + 4 (Overthrows).
So, Batsman 1 gets 6 runs and completes his Century. Also, as the batsmen ran 3 runs, the other batsman (Batsman2) will be on strike for the next ball. He hits a SIX and completes his Century, there by winning the match.
2006-11-27 07:27:59 · answer #2 · answered by ballu 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
on the first ball the first batsmen who has a score of 94 will score a six
so he will reach 100 so first player century over
1 run to win
then the second player have to rotate the strike
and second player will be on strike and he will also hit a six and they win the match and they both will reach 100
good question
2006-12-01 06:23:36 · answer #3 · answered by saharsh s 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1 batsman shud complete his 100 by scoring 6 runs ,at the end of over other batsman who was on 94 will face lat over, in that over if he score 6 then they will win the match & both batsmen will score 100s
2006-11-28 02:12:01 · answer #4 · answered by sat4u1 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
first Batsman gets 3 runs and in over throw they make 4 runs and in 4th run run out.... so now 1 run to win and first batsman gets 100 and gets out... second batsman on 94 will be on strike now... now he will be hitting a six... so he too makes 100....
2006-12-01 02:40:24 · answer #5 · answered by Pearl 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Its possible by the help of bowlers, i mean if the bowler bowled in the following way,
2 balls left
First ball-one batsman-6r
Next ball-No ball-but the batsman takes a run by byes
Last ball-other batsman-6r
2006-11-27 07:11:24 · answer #6 · answered by saravanp_04 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
bowler needs to ball a no ball
2006-11-28 00:59:20 · answer #7 · answered by john 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
pressurek is right..thats looks only option..........
2006-11-27 12:29:37 · answer #8 · answered by Sachin Kumar 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
basically not possible.
2006-11-27 06:53:58 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋