... why was the goal given to Carvalho, when it was Saha's own goal???????
2006-11-26 21:15:25 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Sports ➔ Football ➔ English Football
If Saha wouldn't touch her, it would go straight in to van der Sar's hands!!!!
2006-11-26 21:23:19 · update #1
If Saha wouldn't touch her, it would go straight in to van der Sar's hands!!!!
2006-11-26 21:23:29 · update #2
it deflected off saha..saha tried to clear it...it was already going into the goal...so its carvalho's goal....the ball was going in if saha was there to clear it or not!...but yeah u have a point...i think vad der saar was gonna save it if it didnt touch saha....but who cares? we drew with man utd at old trafford! go chelsea :)
2006-11-26 21:17:47 · answer #1 · answered by ? 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It will probably go to the Dubious Goals Committee.
But it is credited because the shot was goal bound. Own goals are given when the player diverts (change the direction) the ball, meaning that the initial shot wasn't going to be on target anyway but goes in because of the defender.
That's how I see it. Discounting the presence of V.D.Sar, it was going in anyway whether Saha was there or not.
2006-11-27 11:36:33 · answer #2 · answered by BeN 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In the 80s, deflections would count as own goals but these days it's credited to the player who produced the shot.
Tommy Hutchison in the 1981 FA Cup Final is one such case. He scored for City, but then deflected Hoddle's free-kick which was counted as an own goal.
2006-11-27 06:11:25 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
This proves Chelsea were lucky we were unlucky and would have won 3-0 it shows our quality we are still the best side in England
2006-11-27 12:48:36 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋