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Assuming that this trait is governed by a single pair of alleles, is this intense freakledness best explined as an example of dominant or recessive inheritance? Why?

Helpp!!!!

2006-11-26 15:13:50 · 2 answers · asked by pReCioUs_mE 1 in Science & Mathematics Biology

2 answers

Dominant inheritance.

F = freckled
f = non freckled

The parents are Ff and Ff (both freckled)
giving as progeny:
FF, Ff, ff (freckled, freckled, not freckled)

The only way two freckled parents could have children that are not freckled is if the parents are heterozygous for the dominant trait. if the trait was recessive then both parents would be homozygous for freckled and all the children would thus be also freckled.

2006-11-26 16:58:14 · answer #1 · answered by ♪ ♫ ☮ NYbron ☮ ♪ ♫ 6 · 0 0

It should be dominant
Based on the fact that both parents have freckes and their children dont all have freckles it means it cant be recessive which would cause all their children to definatly have freckes. The only possible solution is to have extreme freckledness be dominant and 3 of their children recieved the recessive gene for not having freckles by chance
so both parents are Ff with the F representing extreme freckleness and the f representing lack of freckles.

2006-11-26 15:17:47 · answer #2 · answered by bw 3 · 1 0

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