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f(x) = x^2 + 1, [0,2]

for MVT...i got x=1
for Rolle's..i got x=0

is that right?

2006-11-26 15:13:33 · 2 answers · asked by Julio 4 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

if you are solving for the value of c, then yes you are correct

for roll's theorem to find the value of c you set f'(x) = 0
2x = 0
x=0

for mvt to find the value of c you find the value of f(b) - f(a)/b-a
f(2) - f(0)/2-0 = (2^2 + 1) - 1/2 = 2
then take the derivative and set it equal to that solution
2x=2
x=1

2006-11-26 15:23:20 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

You're right about the x fullfilling the mean value theorem, but I don't see where Rolle's theorem even applies: f(0)≠f(2), and there aren't any distinct points a, b on the interval [0, 2] such that f(a)=f(b).

2006-11-26 23:21:02 · answer #2 · answered by Pascal 7 · 0 0

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