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Curious. Explain.

2006-11-26 14:34:40 · 2 answers · asked by FallOutGirl 2 in Arts & Humanities History

2 answers

If you mean the common people, all but the ruling families, then no, not in any sense you or I would recognize. There was no writing, and there were few professions or industries, so no need for school.

The rulers were called Inka or Inca, and the name of the people probably varied from place to place. The rulers would have had an education of sorts, but more in line with private tutorials than school.

2006-11-26 18:50:58 · answer #1 · answered by umlando 4 · 0 0

I'm sure they did. But their definition of school might be entirely different from what a school presently means. Also, they mght have different guidelines, ways and teachings.

2006-11-26 14:54:16 · answer #2 · answered by Laika 4 · 0 0

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