I'm looking specifically at the period between the Conquest (1066) and the Domesday Book (1086).
Would they have worn, for dress wear, not necessarily on the battlefield, half circle mantles at all?
If only the shoulder-pin rectangular cloaks (like in the Bayeaux tapestry), could they have been embroidered? Where? Along the the short ends?
2006-11-26
11:51:53
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1 answers
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asked by
Elise K
6
in
Arts & Humanities
➔ History
My question involves four parts, so just answering "no" or "yes" is not very helpful. Also, if you answer "yes" or "no" could you please be so kind as to point me towards your sources? I know it's more difficult to prove a negative (i.e. they did not wear embroidered mantles") than a positive, but I'd really appreciate it if you could give me some reasoning behind your answer.
I know Normans 65 year later wore elaborate embroidered and beaded mantles (like Roger II's coronation mantle). So if the Normans in 1066 did not, when did they start?
Many thanks.
2006-11-26
23:44:02 ·
update #1