Would the abortion doctor be tried for double homicide? or single homocide? or none of the above?
If single homocide or none of the above, does that mean a guy can kill a pregnant women and say he was just trying to abort the baby, and not be tried for double homocide?
2006-11-26 11:02:18 · 20 answers · asked by Short Haired Sexy-Person 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Politics
As it's a medical procedure, I think it would be neither. It probably would be investigated though, just to make sure that it was genuinely a medical mishap.
2006-11-26 11:05:13 · answer #1 · answered by x_butterflied_x 1 · 1⤊ 1⤋
I believe we all know abortions are currently legal,so no homicide there, also complications generally do not make a doctor libel unless intent can be shown.As for a guy killing a woman and claiming he was merely aborting a fetus,you have got to be kidding.
2006-11-26 17:14:51 · answer #2 · answered by Jerome D 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I believe neither... why would someone be convicted if he is performing an operation/surgery knowing there could be complications? The only way a person could be tried for either convictions you stated, is if there is some sort of reason to believe that the surgeons for some reason intentionally killed the mother and baby,
2006-11-26 11:14:28 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Seriously, scorebore. I know you cannot be this stupid. If a person dies in an operating room, it is not homicide. If someone who was not a doctor tried to administer that procedure, he would definitely be charged for it. I know you are trying to equate abortion doctors with murderers, but that "argument" falls flat every time. Learn.
2006-11-26 11:08:13 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Actually, believe it or not, the latter has happened in states that do not have laws in place to protect either mother or child in such an event.
I don't have any links, but I have read about it.
In my opinion, though, the doctor and the guy should be tried for double homicide if they kill the woman because that is not just a mass of cells with all our human characteristics, it is a human, albeit not fully formed, but a human nonetheless.
2006-11-26 11:14:44 · answer #5 · answered by STILL standing 5 · 1⤊ 3⤋
Depends on whether the doctor was negligent.
Also, each state defines a pregnancy as viable at different stages. Some do at 24 weeks.
2006-11-26 11:12:57 · answer #6 · answered by GOPneedsarealconservative 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
I'm sure the mother signed a waiver just like a woman who is going to give birth. There wouldn't be a murder trial. Maybe malpractice, but not murder. Abortion is legal.
The law regarding killing an unborn child varies from state to state. To me, it's a murder. To others, it is not.
2006-11-26 11:05:31 · answer #7 · answered by Teacher 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Neither since its a medical precedure and your sign off on papers. And it wouldn't be a double homicide because a fetus is not a person.
2006-11-26 11:22:47 · answer #8 · answered by mommysforever.org 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
It would actually depend on the actual cause of death. The doctor
could be found guilty of a single case of murder.
The rest of your question does not need answering as it is not
even a good premise.
Thank you very much,while you're up.
2006-11-26 11:15:20 · answer #9 · answered by producer_vortex 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Neither. Doctors accidentally kill people every day. They are not to blame excepy in cases of malpractice.
2006-11-26 11:13:52 · answer #10 · answered by soulsearcher 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋