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4 answers

No they can't.

2006-11-26 08:41:56 · answer #1 · answered by bartman40467 4 · 0 0

All of the above fractions are irreducible - their denominators are prime numbers, and the numerators are not divisible by them.

Edit: in point of fact jim, they DO have a GCF - it's just that the GCF happens to be 1.

2006-11-26 08:41:28 · answer #2 · answered by Pascal 7 · 0 0

They can't be simplified. In each fraction, the top
and bottom are prime numbers, so in each case
the top and bottom have GCD of 1.

2006-11-26 08:44:03 · answer #3 · answered by steiner1745 7 · 0 0

no, because they don't have a GCF

2006-11-26 08:40:55 · answer #4 · answered by      7 · 0 1

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