Just to keep everyone on their toes and for those who can spell to correct those who can't. It's a subtle form of class differentiation.
2006-11-29 03:14:20
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answer #1
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answered by MI5 4
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The spellings reflect a difference in pronunciation made by many accents of English (e.g. most Scottish and Irish accents) but not in south-east England. Most words with 'our', 'oar' or 'ore' in the spelling, plus a few oddities such as 'pork', are pronounced with a different vowel sound from most of those with 'aur' or a simple 'or'. For example, 'hoarse' and 'horse' are not pronounced as homophones. The words for 4, 14 and 400 are in the first group, and the word for 40 is in the second. According to Bill Bryson in 'Mother Tongue', the spelling difference dates from the end of the 17th century, so the pronunciation presumably changed at about this time as well. As he points out, this leaves the question of why the sounds changed (and, given the irregularity of English spelling, why the sound change caused the spelling change).
2006-11-26 14:48:24
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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The correct spelling of forty in the UK is FORTY not FOURTY. (Check it in the dictionary)
As to why. . . Don't go there! It'll drive you crazy.
Jon C
2006-11-27 05:57:25
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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ha the wonders of the english language
it was shortened by americans. since in english its still spelled fourty but in american its forty.
2006-11-26 14:29:16
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answer #4
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answered by _peaches_ 3
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I am one who is in agreement in referall to the accusatory charges set out by the aforementioned regarding Americanisation. Furthermore it is not in forty in America because otherwise it would not be 'DA SEX'.
2006-11-26 14:41:33
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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i dunno but i have to think twice when i spell forty
2006-11-26 16:07:36
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answer #6
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answered by rachel d 4
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