I'ts a math question. Many thanks!!
2006-11-26 04:39:38 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
26/52*25/51
=1/2*(25/51)
25/102
2006-11-26 04:41:23 · answer #1 · answered by raj 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If that's a really random drawing, and that i assume they are drawn one after the different, then the danger is defined by the probability of having an ace all both circumstances. in view that there are 4 aces in a fifty 2 card deck, the danger of drawing one is 4/fifty 2, or a million/13. Drawing 2 outcomes contained in the danger of four/fifty 2 * 4/fifty 2, or a million/(13*13) = a million/169
2016-11-29 19:30:28 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
26/52x25/51
=1/2x25/51
=25/102
therefore the probablity that both caards would be balck w/o replacement is 25/102
2006-11-26 04:45:21 · answer #3 · answered by arumisan 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
prob. of 1st card being black = .52/26 = 1/2 (total no. of cards / number of black cards)
prob of 2nd card also being black=25/51 (number of black cards remaining / total no. of cards remaining.)
Probability of both cards being black = 1/2 x 25/51.
I'll leave the arithmetic to you.
2006-11-26 04:47:31 · answer #4 · answered by JIMBO 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
gopal is right
2006-11-26 04:44:44 · answer #5 · answered by de bizzle 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋