Philosophic question: Does every effect belong to an cause?

Answer 1

Acording to Aristotle there is a primary mover "thought thinking thought" that is pure potentuality that was the initial cause of all things, and that from then on every cause has an effect, and every effect has a cause until you arrive at the final effect.

Answer 2

It depends on how you view it. You could view it mathematically, and the answer would then be no because of converse error. You could view it almost tied into a religion, and say yes because, for lack of tangible evidence, a higher power being the cause for some action.

Personally, I think that any action is warranted by some prior cause. That's just me.

Look up and see some philosophy on what causes man and nature to react, and when they do and do not.

Answer 3

No, no longer each and every adventure has a reason. The regulation of reason-and-result breaks down thoroughly on the quantum point. everywhere in the universe, digital debris are constantly popping into existence without reason even though, lingering a 2d, and then returning to the vacuum from which they sprang. Our own universe would have originated as a quantum fluctuation in a prior universe.

Answer 4

Yes,Cause & effect play leap frog. Karma, (action) Action in thought,word or deed creates ones circumstances in life,& ones destiny. What you put out is what you get back. Read the little book "As a man thinketh" by James Allen.

Answer 5

Effect always follows cause

Answer 6

Effect is the result of cause, but I wouldn't say it "belongs."

Answer 7

Yes

Answer 8

this is a question of LOGIC.:
every cause has an effect.
therefore every effect has a cause

Answer 9

The Domino effect sure has it's cause.

Answer 10

Every effect, yes
Every affect....not necessarily