I have never claimed, nor would I, that the media is liberal or conservative. In some cases there might be a bias presented, perhaps often, but I shall not paint a broad stroke over it. With that disclaimer out of the way, why exactly do people think ownership proves bias? Do people really believe it is impossible for the product to not reflect its owners ideology? The ownership argument makes no sense to me. It looks like people are using associations as proof, and exaggerating their quality as evidence.
Am I the only one that thinks the ownership argument is weak and highly flawed?
2006-11-25
03:45:03
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4 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
News & Events
➔ Media & Journalism
That's it. You cite Murdoch? I don't even know what his actual politics are. I doubt you do either. I suppose you have more than anecdotal evidence to back up your assertion?
2006-11-25
03:48:39 ·
update #1