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after rolling a dice and the percentges of times a number will hit has been calculated how might the mean value of all the numbers thrown be determined?

2006-11-25 03:25:05 · 3 answers · asked by jenny trong 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

3 answers

Multiply each percent times its number (i.e. 1,2,3...), add all those products up and divide by 100. That's the definition of the mean value.

2006-11-25 05:38:19 · answer #1 · answered by shimrod 4 · 0 0

If you are talking about 1 die, with 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 on its sides, and it is a fair die (i.e. not weighted to deliberately produce a result against the run of probability) then the larger the number of rolls, the more the average roll will asymptotically converge on 3.5.

Data that suggests a die is not producing a 3.5 average roll simply establishes that the die is crooked. But the converse is not necessarily true, A die could be weighted so as to produce a high percentage of 6 and 1 rolls and still average 3.5. And appear to pass muster as a fair die.

If we are talking about rolling two dice, the average throw (at backgammon, say) is 7. Three dice and it is 10.5. Four and it is 14, n dice and 3.5 n.

The distribution of the various rolls of two dice will tend towards (in the long run)

a roll of 2: 1 time in 36
a roll of 3: 2 times in 36
a roll of 4: 3 times in 36
a roll of 5: 4 times in 36
a roll of 6: 5 times in 36
a roll of 7: 6 times in 36
a roll of 8: 5 times in 36
a roll of 9: 4 times in 36
a roll of 10: 3 times in 36
a roll of 11: 2 times in 36
a roll of 12: 1 time in 36

2006-11-25 13:34:42 · answer #2 · answered by brucebirchall 7 · 2 0

goto data analysis on the excel package and run a histogram or a bar graph and this will show you the mean

2006-11-25 11:27:43 · answer #3 · answered by jojothedogfacewonderbody 2 · 0 0

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