2006-11-25 03:16:25 · 16 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Take the number, in this case 382, and divide it with the other one, 914. Then multiply by 100 and that's it!
2006-11-25 03:19:45 · answer #1 · answered by notscientific 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why play with a formula here? You don't need a formula to solve such questions.
Let's play with the words.
382 is what percent of 914?
The word is means EQUAL in math.
The word of means TIMES in math.
The word what can be replaced by ANY letter of the alphabet. I decided to use x.
We have everything we need.
382 = (x) times 914.
To solve for x, DIVIDE BOTH sides of the equation by 914.
Doing this we get:
382/914 = x
The answer is: x is ABOUT 41.8 percent.
Got it?
Guido
2006-11-25 11:29:35 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
(382/914) X 100
2006-11-25 11:23:08 · answer #3 · answered by bob b 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
382/914*100
2006-11-25 12:17:22 · answer #4 · answered by Beta01 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Its 382/914 * 100 equals close to 42% So you put the first number over the second, divide, it and multiply it by a 100.
2006-11-25 11:20:48 · answer #5 · answered by ╦╩╔╩╦ O.J. ╔╩╦╠═ 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If 914 is 100%
. 382 is x
Then
x = (382*100%)/914 = 41.79%
382 is the 41.79% of 914
2006-11-25 11:25:13 · answer #6 · answered by rocy_77 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Divide 382 by 914 to obtain percent
382 / 914 = 0.41943107
Multiply the decimal by 100 and attach the % sign
0.41793107 x 100 = 41.79431072 %
41.79 % Rounded to two decimal places.
- - - - - -x-
2006-11-25 11:43:54 · answer #7 · answered by SAMUEL D 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
382/914*100
You always divide by the base number (equivalent to 100%)
2006-11-25 11:18:36 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Put the smaller number on top of the fraction. Then divide. Eg. 382/914. Then
----- ________
914) 382
2006-11-25 11:25:32 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
(382 divided by 914) multiplied by 100
382/914 x 100
41.79 %
2006-11-25 11:19:21 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋