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WHY is the kelvn scale used in the chemistry gas laws (ie. Charles's, Gay-Lusacc's)

2006-11-24 23:24:04 · 10 answers · asked by yall_peeps 1 in Science & Mathematics Chemistry

10 answers

Because the Kelvin scale starts at absolute zero (-273*C), where all motion ceases and entropy is zero. All 'action' takes place ABOVE this state of inactivity.

So proportionality from 0*K is more meaningful...it's always best to start at the start, isn't it? :-))

2006-11-24 23:38:41 · answer #1 · answered by L. A. L. 6 · 1 1

Kelvin Scale

2016-10-02 06:12:47 · answer #2 · answered by camarillo 4 · 0 0

One thing to keep in mind is that temperature will always be expressed in the Kelvin scale when dealing with any of the gas laws.

Because using the absolute temperature scale, negative temperature values do not exist, hence, negative or undefined volumes are not possible results

Let's look at a problem dealing with Charles' Law. Suppose you had 25.0 L of gas at 0 oC, and you raised the temperature to 100 oC. What is the new volume of the gas?


The first task is to immediately change the temperature values from Celsius to Kelvin. Remember, when dealing with any gas law, temperature values must be expressed in the absolute temperature scale (Kelvin scale). Why? Look at Charles' Law. If temperature were to remain in the Celsius scale, one would have to divide by 0 oC in the above problem. Division by 0 is undefined. Likewise, if one of the temperatures were negative, a negative volume would result, which is "impossible." By using the absolute temperature scale, negative temperature values do not exist, hence, negative or undefined volumes are not possible results.

2006-11-25 00:43:02 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

LaL is correct. when dealing with freezing points that approach absolute zero (-273) you must use the kelvin scale for recording temp. The Kelvin scale is a thermodynamic (absolute) temperature scale where absolute zero—the lowest possible temperature where nothing could be colder and no heat energy remains in a substance—is defined as zero kelvin (0 K). The unit increment of the Kelvin scale is the kelvin (symbol: K), which is the SI unit of temperature and is one of the seven SI base units. The unit “kelvin” and its scale by international agreement, defined by two points: absolute zero, and the triple point of specially prepared (VSMOW) water. This definition also precisely relates the Kelvin scale to the Celsius scale. Absolute zero—the temperature at which nothing could be colder and no heat energy remains in a substance—is defined as being precisely 0 K and −273.15 °C. The triple point of water is defined as being precisely 273.16 K and 0.01 °C

2006-11-24 23:42:50 · answer #4 · answered by seamonkey_has_da_loot 3 · 1 1

Because the Kelvin scale starts at absolute zero -273*C, where all motion ceases and entropy is zero. All 'action' takes place ABOVE this state of inactivity.0*K it's always best to start at the start.So we use kelvin scale for gas laws......

2006-11-25 01:18:58 · answer #5 · answered by Akshitha 5 · 1 0

The Kelvin scale, on account that it begins at absolute zero. Other scales have an arbitrary 'zero' that's not proportional to the complete vigor on hand. Use of ATM conforms to 'current stipulations'.

2016-08-09 23:29:58 · answer #6 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

That's what was agreed to by the standards people from "Conférence Générale des Poids et Mesures" and is mainly used by scientist and the Europeans.

However, I believe the US (especially engineers) still use Rankine temperature scales, as well as pounds-force, pounds-mass and Fahrenheit.

The link below gives a little detail to the kelvin scale set as the standard.

2006-11-24 23:40:23 · answer #7 · answered by Dave C 7 · 0 2

kelvin is used for all the gas laws because if you would be using celsius there would possibly be a negative number or a zero in the denominator. a negative number would reult in a negative volume which is impossible and a zero in the denominator would result in an undefined answer.

2006-11-25 03:19:03 · answer #8 · answered by bob b 2 · 1 0

because the molar gas constant has unit of J/K/mol

2006-11-24 23:27:54 · answer #9 · answered by ninjatortise 2 · 0 1

because if you use celc., you will sometimes get negitive nembers

2006-11-25 02:29:44 · answer #10 · answered by Paul N 2 · 0 0

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