2006-11-24 03:36:52 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Sports ➔ Cricket
No, the no ball rule is only applicable for the front foot. At any point in time, during the delivery of the ball, the front foot should not completely cross the popping crese for delivery to be legitimate
2006-11-24 04:54:22 · answer #1 · answered by AMIT JAIN - Maverick 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, it iw a No Ball. The Law pertaining to the above instance is explained below:
The Umpire will rule a No Ball, if:
1) If the bowler bowls with the front foot wholly in front of the
popping crease.
2) If the bowler bowls with the back foot touching or outside the
return crease.
2006-11-25 01:05:59 · answer #2 · answered by vakayil k 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes
2006-11-24 13:27:12 · answer #3 · answered by vaibhav d 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes it is
2006-11-24 12:14:56 · answer #4 · answered by KeenKumar 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes its a no ball
2006-11-25 05:37:44 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
................... YES ................. some part of front foot should be behind the line ..............
2006-11-24 12:00:41 · answer #6 · answered by spaceman 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋