Is there a higher percentage than the general population of about one percent ? Is that allowing for more rights given than is democratic ?
2006-11-24 02:39:14 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Probably between 6-8 percent, just like the general population. I don't know where you got the 1% from, but it's wrong.
2006-11-24 02:40:40 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Generally speaking, i read some where that 10% of any population is homosexual. So that would make 10% of judges homosexuals.
The percentage "Out of the closet" would be different from community to community.
2006-11-24 02:44:37 · answer #2 · answered by rewrite_h35 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No one could possibly know, since so many people who are gay are still very much closeted--especially in places where they feel stigmatized. The one percent figure that you give, as you know is not accurate, and is the figure that more reactionary groups that tend to be opposed to the generally accepted 10% figure give. I also find it interesting that you are attempting to link the notion that gay judges are the reason for granting civil rights to gay people. That is not accurate either.
2006-11-24 02:47:33 · answer #3 · answered by kobacker59 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
There is no nose-counting by any demographic category when it comes to judges. There is no way to determine the sexual orientation of everyone, since it's easy to pretend. (Just look at Rev. Ted Haggard!)
What I'd really like to know is, how many Republican congressmen are secretly gayboys. I think there are a lot!
2006-11-24 02:43:41 · answer #4 · answered by kreevich 5 · 3⤊ 0⤋
You'll never know, I never even heard of one.
2006-11-24 02:45:29 · answer #5 · answered by ChaliQ 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
What? Your question makes no sense.
2006-11-24 02:41:21 · answer #6 · answered by John P 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
they didn't tell 'cause I didn't ask!
2006-11-24 02:41:03 · answer #7 · answered by iamhermansen 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1.102781%
2006-11-24 02:40:12 · answer #8 · answered by priyankji 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋