2006-11-22 22:42:31 · 9 answers · asked by deborah c 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
Its usually a 50-50 split of everything but you may want to seek advice from a solicitor.
2006-11-22 22:45:13 · answer #1 · answered by caz111175 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If the home is in joint names, you will get 50%.
If the home is in HIS name, then unless you have a record of money being paid from your bank account going directly into the purchase/mortgage, I'm afraid your position is very weak.
This is the problem with people not getting married. You have no rights!
2006-11-23 06:49:32 · answer #2 · answered by gvih2g2 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Both names on deed(?), if so, and unless you have a written and binding contract to retreive any funds over and above what your partner put in, then it's a 50-50 split. Might be better to buy him/her out, and then sell later.
If married, definitely lucky if you get 50%
2006-11-23 06:46:43 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Do didn't go into detail. But you take what you bought and they take what they bought. Or you can be sensible and say 50-50. That will create peace.
2006-11-23 06:49:56 · answer #4 · answered by DolphinLami 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
depends how long you have lived in the house and how long the relationship lasted
2006-11-23 08:08:48 · answer #5 · answered by dave p 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
if you split with your partner the home should be split equally (unless he was doing the dirty on you)th that case i would cut up all of his belongings
2006-11-23 06:46:25 · answer #6 · answered by Bella 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
you dont have a leg to stand on
2006-11-23 06:45:48 · answer #7 · answered by ALBERT M 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well I hope it is in your name
2006-11-23 06:46:12 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
depends on how involved with the person you were
2006-11-23 06:45:10 · answer #9 · answered by wetnslippy 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋