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I've always wondered this because I belive when someone goes to jail or prison they have paid they're debt to society. My brother is an ex-con and has been out of jail for 10yrs and never went back. He works,pays his bills, taxes, and basically contributes to society as everyone else. Yet, he's not allowed the freedom to vote as the rest of us, because of a mistake ( that didn't go unpunished) he made years ago?

2006-11-22 17:25:32 · 7 answers · asked by sinai 1 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

7 answers

I AGREE WITH YOU 100%
TALK TO YOUR BROTHER ABOUT GETTING HIS RECORD SEALED (I BELIEVE IT CAN BE DONE AFTER 5 YRS.) AS LONG AS LAW ENFORCEMENT DOESN'T OPEN IT AGAIN ITS A DEAD ISSUE

2006-11-22 17:49:04 · answer #1 · answered by tofatandblack 2 · 0 1

Back in the old days... the late 1800's that is, America was trying to gain an "ideal" and "virtuous" voter population.

The idea was to only allow those who knew about the issues, and had a good moral standing to vote. In their quest for this ideal voter population, the US government passed several laws that restricted voter turnouts.

Among these restrictions were literacy tests, poll taxes, the Australian ballot (or the idea of a private vote on a ballot card printed by the government. Prior to this, all votes were public and were many times coerced by the corrupt political parties). And then of course there was the denial of immigrants, blacks, or felons to vote.
As we all know, most of these restrictions have been abolished, but the one about felons, well it's obviously still in effect.

On a side note, the same ideal also brought about some good. This quest for virtuous voters allowed women to use that idea to their advantage, by touting an image of morality and care in issues.

2006-11-22 17:35:47 · answer #2 · answered by Meg08 3 · 0 0

Well first when you commit a crime you are breaking the law, so there has to be a consequence. (If no what is the point of having of it) The instant you break the law you loose some of your individual guarantees, no one made you break the law, you chose to break the law. Every individual is responsible of their acts. So by choice you have to accept the consequence of your act (even if they are not fair). Because for some people the time your brother served in jail is not enough (for them it’s not fair) (its up to each person judgment).
Some issues are being discussed about the right of ex-cons to vote you can check this site http://www.righttovote.org/index.asp.

2006-11-22 17:39:09 · answer #3 · answered by Ad-adriana 2 · 0 0

I work, pay bills, taxes and contribute to society but I don't get to vote, and I think it is absolutely fair. I however, am not, and never have been a criminal..I'm a U.S. Resident. Driving is a priviledge not a right, so shouldn't voting be too?

2006-11-22 18:22:34 · answer #4 · answered by KED 4 · 1 0

It's part of the consequence for their crime. The theory is that they have proved themselves as not to be good citizens.

Plus, a crime isn't a mistake. It is a bad decision, but is no mistake. A mistake is something that doesn't violate societal norms.

2006-11-22 17:39:02 · answer #5 · answered by .45 Peacemaker 7 · 0 0

i does no longer ideas for an ex-con to vote, of direction reckoning on the legal dedicated. if its for stupid youthful mistakes, then u must have the right to vote. now, if its like a homicide element or rapist, the u shouldn,t have the right to vote, purely via the indisputable fact that human being became no longer mentally waiting to administration their feeling, they are unable to pick what its reliable for the human beings in the adventure that they dont even comprehend whats reliable for them. its extra of an ethical element, than a political one.

2016-11-29 09:38:52 · answer #6 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

I was wondering the same thing. If you do your time and everything and rehabilitate yourself and are good,you should be able to.

2006-11-22 17:31:53 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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