My brother married for three times but he uses different names to his three marriages. His second marriage he used his real name. Is this three marriages for him were all void in the Philippines? He has one kid for his first marriage is this kid has a right for his benificiary? What is the law in the Philippines? Is this funishable by law to remary again and again even if her spouses are still living? Are there wives has all the same rights for the benifits even she used different names? His first marriage he uses the family name of his grand mother and his second marriage he used his real family name and his third marriage he used his mother's mailden name. My bother now is confused that's why I am trying to help him thru your help. Is this punishable by law? And he can devorce his two wives without the knowledge of his wives? Does their conjugal properties are all in equal even his marriages is not the same manes he used? If he work in other country who is the the legal benificiary.
2006-11-22 15:19:34 · 3 answers · asked by Adelaida Nida A 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
He sounds like a poligamist who doesn't want to get caught. Only legal spouses are eligible for benefits but there is probably a minimum # of years someone has to be married if they are divorced (but the marriage has to be a valid one). For example: For Social Security benefits a divorced spouse could receive benefits on the exes record if they were married for at least 10 yrs.
If he truly divorced each of his wives, then it doesn't matter how many wives he has. If he failed to get divorced before he married someone the marriage is invalid & they would have to have the marriage annulled.
Poligamy is a felony & a federal offense & applies to the Phillipines if you are a terratory of the US. (I can't believe that I can't remember if you are or not). My memory is going to pot.
I seriously doubt that your brother is confused. He knows if his marriages are legal or not. If he didn't divorce his wives then any marriage after #1 is illegal. Only the 1st wife can receive benefits. If he has any children by someone else whether he is married or not the child would be eligible for benefits.
It's obvious he is hiding something by using different names; this isn't something an innocent person would do. Why don't you ask the wives if they have marriage & divorce certificates or check with probate court. It would be a public record. They wouldn't give you a copy but they could verify if they had a record. Your brother is lucky he hasn't been reported to the police.
2006-11-22 15:51:48 · answer #1 · answered by Judith 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
He's confused only Now? Amazing!
This called bigamy in the US and it is illeagal and immoral
2006-11-22 23:25:06 · answer #2 · answered by nonlinear_systems 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
sounds shady to me but his legal beneficiary would be his first born.....
2006-11-22 23:22:31 · answer #3 · answered by justmedrt 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋