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2006-11-22 12:16:48 · 5 answers · asked by SmartAss 2 in Education & Reference Trivia

HINT: It's in the CONSTITUTION of this Great Country of Ours!!!

2006-11-22 12:53:07 · update #1

5 answers

This was established shortly after the Articles of Confederation. A large number of northern states lagged behind the population of the South. Whites in the South then outnumbered the number of whites in the north. When it came to determining representation in the United States Congress, the southern states wished to count their slaves as well which would give them a largely disproportionate representation. The northern states argued that their state of life-long servitude made them less than men, and to count them as a man would undermine the entire reason for a slave system in the first place, thus opening the way for the radicals already calling for abolishment of slavery a hole to maneuver their agenda through Congress. The southern states, not wishing to give up any comfortable lead in the House then made a compromise that every slave would count as 3/5 of a man. This still gave southern states their majority (later to change despite large number of slaves) while giving northern states the breathing room necessary to enact legislation that was in their own interest.

2006-11-22 13:38:13 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

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RE:
What was the 3/5th rule?

2015-08-10 05:50:15 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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Is the food dry or wet? What is the floor like? Who's house am I in? The answer can vary greatly. In my parents' house I'd apply a 3-5 hour rule. In mine, maybe 1 second.

2016-04-04 08:40:57 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

it's actually the 3/5 compromise.
It is used to determine how slaves were counted in population, probably for determining number of representatives in the house of Representatives.

every 5 slaves = 3 white men.

2006-11-22 13:27:11 · answer #4 · answered by Mckayla M 4 · 0 0

Majority rule.

2006-11-22 12:42:13 · answer #5 · answered by J W 4 · 0 1

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