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2006-11-22 11:33:41 · 2 answers · asked by goring 6 in Science & Mathematics Physics

If light was intanteneous wouldnt we then be able to measure the velocity of the motion? so what happens in the proper frame is is seen the same way in the observer's frame?

2006-11-22 12:40:13 · update #1

2 answers

yes and no you have kinda the right idea but what your referring to is just a delay of light to the eye, no light bending time it self.

2006-11-22 13:48:43 · answer #1 · answered by matt v 3 · 0 0

Time dilation has nothing to do with visual delay; it is simply the delay of visual acquisition due to the time light takes to get from the moving object to the eye.

Delay = D/c

2006-11-22 20:27:32 · answer #2 · answered by Steve 7 · 0 0

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